Is it 'dabat' or 'dedit'?

[beejay]

My son just asked a question about HENLE 1: Page 23 Re: Indirect Object
The example is 'Christus gloriam Deo dedit.' Is 'dedit' here the perfect completed action of the past rather than the simple past (imperfect) tense?

In other words, do we use 'dabat' to express the imperfect tense ('he was giving' and 'he did give') but not 'he gave?' This is what we remember from Latina Christiana II.

We are confused here. Please advise.

Thanks.
BJ

[Maria]

beejay,

Yes, you would use the Latin imperfect tense ([I]dabat[/I]) to translate [I]he was giving[/I]. However, you would use the Latin perfect tense ([I]dedit[/I]) to translate [I]he did give[/I] and [I]he gave[/I].

The Latin imperfect tense speaks of an action as GOING ON in the past, whereas the Latin perfect tense speaks of an action as having been COMPLETED.

For more explanation of the difference between the imperfect and perfect tenses of Latin, you can go to pages 108-109 and 155 of [I]Henle I[/I].

Maria