Ron
05-03-2009, 06:42 PM
I don't understand why "agam" is not in the imperfect subjunctive (agerem). Shouldn't the verb in a purpose clause be in the imperfect subjunctive whenerver the the verb (vocavi) in the main clause is in a secondary tense?
TEXT:
8. Gallorum dux suis, "Ego vos," inquit, "in hunc locum vocavi ut de belli ratione agam."
ANSWER KEY:
8. The leader of the Gausl said to his men, "I have called you to this place in order to treat (discuss) the conduct of the war."
Am I missing something obvious?
TEXT:
8. Gallorum dux suis, "Ego vos," inquit, "in hunc locum vocavi ut de belli ratione agam."
ANSWER KEY:
8. The leader of the Gausl said to his men, "I have called you to this place in order to treat (discuss) the conduct of the war."
Am I missing something obvious?