Dusty
04-21-2006, 06:08 PM
On number 3 of Exercise B of the TM the translation for "will seize" is given as "occupabant". Should it not be "occupabunt" because it is future tense? Perhaps this obvious, but because I lack confidence in my ability to grasp Latin, let alone teach it, I need verification on these minor points. I hope the TM is in error - because if it's not, then I'm probably messing up my child's study of Latin big time.