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Terri S.
02-26-2008, 12:20 PM
Since the verb trado translates as "I hand over", do nouns/pronouns which follow it function as direct objects, or objects of the preposition "over"?

I am specifically asking in regards to Lesson XIV, question 2 in exercise B. My son declined it as an object of a preposition, and I've explained that the preposition is "part" of the verb, so it translates as a direct object. Hoping I'm correct!

Thanks for the help!

Martin Cothran
02-26-2008, 12:54 PM
Terri,

Could you indicate which book you are referring to? Thanks.

Martin

mythopoeic
03-04-2008, 07:24 PM
Hi Terri,

I'm not sure about the particular lesson, but think of it like this: What am I handing over? Trado takes a direct object in the accusative and can take another object, either the dative, "to" or another prep., e.g. in custodiam "into custody." So basically, I think you've got it right - trado is trado in Latin and forms one idea. English requires the preposition, and you can put it wherever you want in your translation. I hand over x to y; I hand x over to y.

Will

Terri S.
03-18-2008, 11:53 AM
It's LCII! But I think I've gotten the answer in the other reply. If I'm still wrong or off track, I'd love to know. Thanks.