Amazing Grace
01-14-2008, 04:29 PM
In talking about disjunctive moods, the author states that Ponendo Tollens (Either P or Q: Q/P: Therefore, not P) is invalid, the reason why being that just because Q is true doesn't mean that P is not true. The example given is:
Either Socrates is a farmer or Socrates is a philosopher
Socrates is a farmer
Therefore, Socrates is not a philosopher
What I don't understand is that if the first premise is either/or (meaning only one or the other can be correct), how that doesn't negate one alternant. If we know that one is correct or incorrect, that must mean that the other is the opposite.
So I don't understand how affirming the first/second alternant is a fallacy. Any help would be much appreciated.
Either Socrates is a farmer or Socrates is a philosopher
Socrates is a farmer
Therefore, Socrates is not a philosopher
What I don't understand is that if the first premise is either/or (meaning only one or the other can be correct), how that doesn't negate one alternant. If we know that one is correct or incorrect, that must mean that the other is the opposite.
So I don't understand how affirming the first/second alternant is a fallacy. Any help would be much appreciated.