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mamashaw
01-09-2008, 01:30 PM
Dear Magister,

A question from my discipulus from Henle Latin I Lesson 3 exercise 51....regarding #11 & #12...how does "audivit" translate to "heard" and not "hears"? Does this have something to do with the principle parts or is it a matter of loose translation. We cannot seem to solve this problem.
Thanks for your response....Amici Latina

Mungo
01-09-2008, 05:21 PM
Audivit is "he/she/it heard" - perfect tense. The present tense, "hears," would be audit. However, in my copy of Henle I, ex. 51 doesn't contain any verbs at all, only noun phrases, mostly with prepositions, to translate. Are you perhaps looking at a different exercise? The perfect system isn't introduced until the end of Unit Three, in lesson 15. HTH anyway!

mamashaw
01-15-2008, 11:26 AM
Thanks Mungo for the help. It was actually Exercise 59 with the "audivit" thrown in there for confusion. We'll let it ride until Unit III. Thanks again.