View Full Version : Question about the principle parts
beejay
09-05-2005, 02:26 PM
I have a question regarding the verb do (I give). In Henle book I p. 23 under the vocabulary section he defines dedit (Perf. ind. act. part.) as he gave (imperfect) instead of he had given (perfect past), which is described by the stem. Why is that? I appreciate your help.
Maria
09-06-2005, 07:53 PM
beejay,
The English past tense (he gave) is used to translate the Latin perfect tense (dedit).
The English past progressive tense (he was giving) is used to translate the Latin imperfect tense (dabat).
The English past perfect tense (he had given) is used translate the Latin pluperfect tense (dederat).
I hope this helps.
Maria
P.S. Dedit is actually not perfect indicative active participle, but perfect indicative active.
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